From: Herbert Xu <redacted>
Date: Tue, 22 Jul 2008 01:02:33 +0800
On Mon, Jul 21, 2008 at 09:51:24AM -0700, David Miller wrote:
quoted
How so? If the TX hash is well distributed, which it should be,
it is at least going to approximate the distribution provided by
the RX hash.
This is a matter of probabilities :) In general, if the TX hash
and the RX hash are completely unrelated, then the end result of
the hash distribution should be independent of each other (independent
in the probablistic sense). That is, for the flows which have
been RX hashed into one queue, they should be hashed on average
across all queues by the TX hash. Conversely, those that have
been hashed into one TX queue would be distributed across all
RX queues.
Theoretically perhaps you are right.
Can I at least get some commitment that someone will test
that this really is necessary before we add the CPU ID
hash option?
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