Re: [RFC PATCH 4/7] x86: use exit_lazy_tlb rather than membarrier_mm_sync_core_before_usermode
From: Alan Stern <stern@rowland.harvard.edu>
Date: 2020-07-17 17:44:05
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On Fri, Jul 17, 2020 at 12:22:49PM -0400, Mathieu Desnoyers wrote:
----- On Jul 17, 2020, at 12:11 PM, Alan Stern stern@rowland.harvard.edu wrote:quoted
quoted
quoted
I agree with Nick: A memory barrier is needed somewhere between the assignment at 6 and the return to user mode at 8. Otherwise you end up with the Store Buffer pattern having a memory barrier on only one side, and it is well known that this arrangement does not guarantee any ordering.Yes, I see this now. I'm still trying to wrap my head around why the memory barrier at the end of membarrier() needs to be paired with a scheduler barrier though.The memory barrier at the end of membarrier() on CPU0 is necessary in order to enforce the guarantee that any writes occurring on CPU1 before the membarrier() is executed will be visible to any code executing on CPU0 after the membarrier(). Ignoring the kthread issue, we can have: CPU0 CPU1 x = 1 barrier() y = 1 r2 = y membarrier(): a: smp_mb() b: send IPI IPI-induced mb c: smp_mb() r1 = x The writes to x and y are unordered by the hardware, so it's possible to have r2 = 1 even though the write to x doesn't execute until b. If the memory barrier at c is omitted then "r1 = x" can be reordered before b (although not before a), so we get r1 = 0. This violates the guarantee that membarrier() is supposed to provide. The timing of the memory barrier at c has to ensure that it executes after the IPI-induced memory barrier on CPU1. If it happened before then we could still end up with r1 = 0. That's why the pairing matters. I hope this helps your head get properly wrapped. :-)It does help a bit! ;-) This explains this part of the comment near the smp_mb at the end of membarrier: * Memory barrier on the caller thread _after_ we finished * waiting for the last IPI. [...] However, it does not explain why it needs to be paired with a barrier in the scheduler, clearly for the case where the IPI is skipped. I wonder whether this part of the comment is factually correct: * [...] Matches memory barriers around rq->curr modification in scheduler.
The reasoning is pretty much the same as above: CPU0 CPU1 x = 1 barrier() y = 1 r2 = y membarrier(): a: smp_mb() switch to kthread (includes mb) b: read rq->curr == kthread switch to user (includes mb) c: smp_mb() r1 = x Once again, it is possible that x = 1 doesn't become visible to CPU0 until shortly before b. But if c is omitted then "r1 = x" can be reordered before b (to any time after a), so we can have r1 = 0. Here the timing requirement is that c executes after the first memory barrier on CPU1 -- which is one of the ones around the rq->curr modification. (In fact, in this scenario CPU1's switch back to the user process is irrelevant.) Alan Stern